Not sure if that would fit the definition of eugenics, as I'll try to present an argument to it:
Kids A and Kids B both take the same vaccine. All of kids A have no problems while all of kids B get autism. Now, according to your argument, A passes on their genes while B does not.
However, if a second vaccine is given to kids A and half of them get autism from that one, then your argument becomes weaker as the only reason kids B got autism was because they couldn't handle the first vaccine.
Now, if the second vaccine had been given first to both A and B kids and only half of A kids got autism while none fo the others did, then it's less of "eugenics" and more of the vaccine itself. One vaccine caused one group to react while the other vaccine caused the other group to react.
Not sure if that made sense, but I tried.... (I knew what I wanted to say, but not sure I explained it correctly.) Hopefully, it makes sense....
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